Conceptual Frameworks Of The Ethical Constructs Of Ethics, Moral, Or Legal Standards

Write a 4 to 5 page paper (page count does not include title and reference page) that addresses the following:

  • Introduce the conceptual frameworks of the ethical constructs of ethics, moral, or legal standards and the purpose of the paper.
  • Consider  an ethical, moral, or legal dilemma that you have encountered in your work environment and describe it.
  • Analyze the moral, ethical, and legal implications utilized in this situation. Describe your role as a moral agent or advocate for this specific issue.
  • Consider your leadership styles identified by your self-assessment and determine if they act as a barrier or facilitation during this dilemma.

Nursing Mobilization Plan Power Point

Create an 8–10-slide mobilization plan PowerPoint presentation (with detailed speaker’s notes) for a mobilization plan by your health care organization to commit 20 nurses to participate in a 4-month-long multinational effort to treat patients exposed to a highly contagious virus in a hot zone in Africa.

 

This assessment is based upon the scenario below. The scenario is very limited in detail; where more detail is needed, incorporate any assumptions you make to flesh out the scenario. It is intended to assess your ability to communicate your approach to a challenge by evaluating issues of organization, leadership, safety, quality improvement, multiculturalism and diversity.

Your approach should be very conceptual and high-level.

Scenario
Your health care organization has recently committed 20 nurses to participate in a 4-month-long multinational effort to treat patients exposed to a highly contagious virus in a “hot zone” in Africa. The director of your organization has asked you, because of your previous medical mission experience, to outline nursing-related plans for preparing for the mobilization and present this information at an upcoming staff meeting.

Deliverable: Mobilization Plan PowerPoint Presentation

Create an 8–10-slide PowerPoint presentation (with detailed speaker’s notes) of your mobilization plan. It should be targeted toward members of the hospital’s administrative staff, nurses, and the physicians who will also participate in this medical mission.

  • Use bullet points and phrases on the slides.
  • The narrative, or explanation for each slide, should be in the speaker’s notes section.

The mobilization plan should address the following:

  • Identify the major stakeholders within the health care system that would be affected by the mobilization plan.
  • Analyze how the mobilization effort will impact staffing patterns and nursing care at the hospital.
  • Describe the medical mission team’s organizational structure of the mission team and how power is distributed.
    • Include one slide of an organizational diagram for the mission.
      • Describe the roles (in the speaker’s notes).
  • Assess how the organizational structure empowers team members.
    • Provide 1–2 examples of how team members will have power.
  • Identify key actions needed to assure quality of care and safety for mission patients and personnel.
  • Evaluate potential power issues that may arise when dealing with a multinational contingent.
    • (Be generic; that is, do not address individual nationalities, races, et cetera.)
    • Consider interactions with health care personnel from other countries.
  • Examine potential multicultural and diversity issues that mission personnel may encounter.
    • Consider that the indigenous population may be hostile to treatment.
    • Outline possible training requirements to improve cultural competencies of the personnel.

Additional Requirements

  • Written communication: Written communication should be free of errors that detract from the overall message.
  • APA formatting: Resources and in-text citations should be formatted according to current APA style and formatting.
  • Length: Presentation should be 8–10 slides. Include speaker’s notes on each content slide.
  • References: Include a minimum of three peer-reviewed resources on the final slide (in APA format).
  • General formatting: Choose an appropriate theme if using a template.

Evidence-Based Practice Project—Paper On Diabetes

Identify a research or evidence-based article that focuses comprehensively on a specific intervention or new diagnostic tool for the treatment of diabetes in adults or children.

In a paper of 750-1,000 words, summarize the main idea of the research findings for a specific patient population. Research must include clinical findings that are current, thorough, and relevant to diabetes and the nursing practice.

Prepare this assignment according to the APA guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a grading rubric. Instructors will be using the rubric to grade the assignment; therefore, students should review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the assignment criteria and expectations for successful completion of the assignment.

You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Refer to the directions in the Student Success Center. Only Word documents can be submitted to Turnitin.

125.0 Evidence-Based Practice Project—Intervention Presentation on Diabetes

Based on the summary of research findings identified from the Evidence-Based Project—Paper on Diabetes that describes a new diagnostic tool or intervention for the treatment of diabetes in adults or children, complete the following components of this assignment:

Develop a PowerPoint presentation (a title slide, 6-12 slides, and a reference slide; no larger than 2 MB) that includes the following:

  1. A brief summary of the research conducted in the Evidence-Based Project – Paper on Diabetes.
  2. A descriptive and reflective discussion of how the new tool or intervention may be integrated into practice that is supported by sound research.

While APA format is not required for the body of this assignment, solid academic writing is expected, and in-text citations and references should be presented using APA documentation guidelines, which can be found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.

You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin, Only Word documents can be submitted to Turnitin.

Nursing Assessment

While interviewing and examining a 17-year-old male, you discover a white patch on his buccal mucosa and slanting palpebral fissures in his eyes. He also states during the interview that he plays baseball and is hoping to earn an athletic scholarship to college.

When the 17-year-old boy says he plays baseball and would like to get an athletic scholarship for college, we can suspect that he spends a lot of time in the field, exposed his self to sun and has been exposed to smokeless tobacco which is prevalent in the baseball sport. An increased use of smokeless tobacco use in sports, mainly in baseball is been reported  in 2016 (Jarvis, 2016). ), “Leukoplakia is chalky white, thick raised patch with well-defined borders.”  This is attached firmly to the buccal mucosa, even if you scraping hard it will not come off. You can also see it in individual who are heavily tobacco user as well as alcohol (Jarvis, 2016). White patches in the mouth also called excessive Candida you may see it in patient with weak immune system, steroid inhaler user, and HIV infection, use of broad-spectrum antibiotics, leukemia, and malnutrition.Slight upward or downward slanting of palpebral fissures normally occurs on a familial basis or in groups such as people of Asian descent. So in this case the slating palpable fissures in his eyes found during the assessment can be suspect that this patient is Asian or is an Asian descent. In non-Asians, the palpebral fissures are horizontal (Jarvis, 2008). Usually when narrowed, upward slanted palpebral fissures are present it could be indication of Down syndrome. In this case this 17-year-old boy should have been ruled out earlier than the age of 17. I would conduct a cranial nerve examination using Snellen chart test for visual acuity to see if there are any deficits in the optic nerve. Patients near vision could also be assessing (Jarvis, 2016).  An ophthalmoscope consult should be place to “examine the ocular fundus to determine the color, size, and shape of the optic disc” (Jarvis, 2016, p. 644). I will also get order for a CT scan to rule out ICP  if during retina exam  patient’s margins of the optic disc become blurred and indistinct. I would first want to initially suspect that the patient has papilledema, also known as a choked disc which is an increase in cranial pressure (ICP) (Jarvis, 2016).

As a Health care professionals we are educated and trained on strategies to teach patients and family members about this condition. First and foremost, would be for the patient to have genetic testing done to confirm a Down syndrome diagnosed. If the test results are positive, then the health care professional can provide the family and patient with the appropriate resources and specialty professionals to aid them in coping with their new diagnosis. The one most important thing that a health care professional can do is to empower the patient and family. This can be accomplished by carrying out interventions in a manner in which family members acquire a sense of control over their own efforts to meet their needs. Health care professionals can also enable families by creating opportunities for family members to become more competent and self-sustaining with respect to their abilities to mobilize their social networks to get their needs met and attain desired goals (Cohen, 2013). It is important to also let the patient know that his career of playing baseball may be limited in college may grossing diminish if other manifestations of condition sets in later in life.

Some special considerations that can help to educate the patient and family on health promotion and disease intervention would include continuous monitoring measures, including yearly audiologic assessment and yearly ophthalmologic assessment, ongoing management of manifestation of the disorder and related conditions, as well as discussion of issues identified with the move into adulthood. If it were discovered that the patient has developed the habit of using smokeless tobacco, I would educate him on the harmful effects of smokeless tobacco such as the increase risk for cancer, and encourage him to seek out measures to quit.  I would also remind him that at the age of 17 it is illegal to obtain to tobacco products and that he could jeopardize his chances of playing baseball on the collegiate level via an athletic scholarship if caught breaking the law. Furthermore, I would encourage this patient to seek alternative measure to quit smoking, and pick up healthier habits like chewing sugar free gum in place of using smokeless tobacco.

References

Cohen, W. I. (2003). Health Care Guidelines for Individuals with Down Syndrome-1999 Revision. Down Syndrome, 237-245. doi:10.1002/0471227579.ch17

Jarvis, C. (2016). Physical examination & health assessment. (7th ed.). St. Louis: Elsevier.

Jarvis, C. (2008). Pocket companion for physical examination and health assessment. (5thed.).  St. Louis:  Elsevier.

PROFESSOR QUESTION/NEEDS TO ANSWER TO PROFESSOR BASE ON MY POST.

For our 1st pt-

The diagnosis of whiplash is a key differential diagnosis for our first patient. When we consider the patients complaints; HA, decreased ROM in the neck, vertigo, loss of hearing to one ear, sweating and uncontrollable eye movements, along with the recent possible mechanism of injury; the MVA whiplash does fit a possible diagnosis for this patient. When we think of the causes of whiplash, we think of a force strong enough to whip the patients neck backward and forward, placing a great deal of stress on the neck muscles and ligaments. What additional differential diagnosis is appropriate for our first patient, based on the S/S?

Case And Discussion

Will need minimum of 300 words, APA Style, double spaced, times new romans, font 12, and and (3 references with intext citations )

 

Case and Discussion

A 21-year-old women comes to your office with a 2 day history of right ear pain. She reports that the ear pain began shortly after taking scuba diving lessons. She describes the pain as “a pressure” and also notes “crackling” in the right ear and periodically feeling dizzy.

Please answer questions below in discussion board response.

  • What other associated symptoms should you ask about?
  • How does the time course help to distinguish among different causes of ear pain?
  • How does the age of the patient help with narrowing the diagnostic possibilities?
  • What diagnostic tests do you want to include to help you with your diagnosis?
  • Create a differential diagnosis flowsheet for this patient and include the diagnostics as well as the pharmacological management and rationale related to the differentials.

NR 511 Week 4 Midterm

Question 1: In an outpatient setting, what is the most common reason for a malpractice suit?

a. Failure to treat a condition
b. Failure to diagnose correctly
c. Ordering the wrong medication
d. Failure to manage care

Question 2: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?

a. Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit

Question 3: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?

a. Cholinesterase inhibitors
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antidepressants
d. Atypical antipsychotics

Question 4: Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?

a. Metranidazole

b. Ceftriaxone

c. Diflucan
d. Doxycycline

Question 5: Most adult poisonings are:

a. intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.

Question 6: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?

a. “It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.”
b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”

Question 7: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?

a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.

Question 8: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?

a. Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above

Question 9: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?

a. Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions

Question 10: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

a. Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC)
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Widening pulse pressure

Question 11: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?

a. Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.

Question 12: In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents?

a. Commitment

b. Consensus

c. Certification
d. Collaboration

Question 13: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?

a. Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain

Question 14: Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?

a. The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.
b. The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
c. The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.
d. Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.

Question 15: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?

a. Overweight

b. Mild obesity

c. Moderate obesity
d. Morbid obesity

Question 16: S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician suspect in the initial test results for this patient?

a. Elevated uric acid level
b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Decreased urine pH
d. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP)

Question 17: Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?

a. The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
b. Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
c. Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
d. All of the above

Question 18: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?

a. Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes

Question 19: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?

a. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 20: Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?

a. A female in her reproductive years
b. A 40-year-old African American male
c. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d. A 45-year-old male awakened at night

Question 21: A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation?

a. 4

b. 8 d

c. 10
d. 15

Question 22: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?

a. Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants

Question 23: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

a. Radical orchidectomy

b. Lumpectomy

c. Radiation implants
d. All of the above

Question 24: Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:

a. “L-dopa is neuroprotective.”
b. “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”
c. “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”
d. “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”

Question 25: A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?

a. The scrotum will be dark.
b. The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
c. The scrotum will appear milky white.
d. The internal structures will be clearly visible.

Question 26: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas

Question 27: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral

Question 28: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?

a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral

Question 29: A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
a. Testicular cancer

b. Inguinal hernia

c. Varicocele
d. All of the above

Question 30: The clinician should Question: the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?

a. Low-dose aspirin

b. Thiazide diuretics

c. Ethambutol
d. All of the above

Question 31: What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
a. A stabbing type of pain on one small area of the body
b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c. A pain that is worse upon awakening
d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal

Question 32: Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?
a. Autonomy

b. Beneficence

c. Justice
d. Veracity

Question 33: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?

a. 10%

b. 20%

c. 30%
d. 50%

Question 34: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?

a. Valgus stress test
b. McMurray circumduction test
c. Lachman test
d. Varus stress test

Question 35: Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease?
a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Elevated T4
c. Elevated TRH
d. All of the above

Question 36: Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)
b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
c. Silver nitrate
d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

Question 37: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

a. An enlarged rubbery gland

b. A hard irregular gland

c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland

Question 38: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks

Question 39: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:

a. 1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.

Question 40: The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs to manage his pain?

a. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.
b. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain in order to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.
c. You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.
d. It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.

Question 41: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?

a. Sinus bradycardia

b. Atrial fibrillation

c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves

Question 42: Sam is a 25-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
a. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
b. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue

Question 43: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns

Question 44: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary

Question 45: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?

a. Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.

Question 46: In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?

a. Osteoarthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
d. Sjogren’s syndrome

Question 47: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
a. Pregnancy test

b. Pelvic ultrasound .

c. Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count

Question 48: A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?
a. Trichomonas
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

Question 49: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?

a. Propranolol

b. Timolol

c. Ergotamine
d. Topiramate

Question 50: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?

a. Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin

Journals Nurs6540

Week 1 Journal

 

As a future advanced practice nurse, it is important that you are able to connect your classroom experience to your practicum experience. By applying the concepts you study in the classroom to clinical settings, you enhance your professional competency. Each week, you complete an Assignment such as a Journal Entry or SOAP Note that prompts you to reflect on your practicum experiences and relate them to the material presented in the classroom. This week, you begin documenting your practicum experiences in your Practicum Journal. To prepare for this course’s Practicum Experience, address the following in your practicum journal:

 

  • Select an aging theory to guide your practice.
  • Develop goals and objectives for the Practicum Experience in this course. Be sure to consider geriatric competencies.
  • Create a timeline of practicum activities based on your practicum requirements.

 

 

 

Week 2 Journal

 

To prepare for this course’s Practicum Experience, reflect on implications of age-related changes in geriatric patients. Explain how you might differentiate between normal behaviors/disorders due to aging and abnormal behavior/disorders that are not age related. Include how functional assessments might help distinguish “normal” from “abnormal.”

 

Week 4 Journal

 

Reflect on medication adherence issues you have encountered with geriatric patients in your practicum setting. Explain implications of these issues on patient health, as well as strategies to improve medication adherence for geriatric patients. If you did not have an opportunity to evaluate a patient with this background during the last 4 weeks, you can select a related case study or reflect on previous clinical experiences.

 

*Please use APA format. Cite references within the paper along with a reference list at the end.

NURS6521 Week 1 Quiz Latest 2017

Question

Week 1 Quiz

Question 1 A patient has a blood serum drug level of 50 units/mL. The drug’s half-life is 1 hour. If concentrations above 25 units/mL are toxic and no more of the drug is given, how long will it take for the blood level to reach the nontoxic range?

Question 2 During a clinic visit, a patient complains of having frequent muscle cramps in her legs. The nurse’s assessment reveals that the patient has been taking over-the-counter laxatives for the past 7 years. The nurse informed the patient that prolonged use of laxatives

Question 3 Which of the following affects drug distribution throughout the body?

Question 4 An unconscious patient has been brought to the hospital, and the physician has prescribed a life-saving drug to be administered parenterally. Which of the following methods would be the most appropriate for the nurse to use when administering the medication?

Question 5 An older adult patient with a history of Alzheimer’s disease and numerous chronic health problems has been prescribed several medications during his current admission to hospital and recent declines in the patient’s cognition have impaired his ability to swallow pills. Which of the following medications may the nurse crush before administering them to this patient?

Question 6 A nurse has been administering a drug to a patient intramuscularly (IM). The physician discontinued the IM dose and wrote an order for the drug to be given orally. The nurse notices that the oral dosage is considerably higher than the parenteral dose and understands that this due to

Question 7 A patient who has ongoing pain issues has been prescribed meperidine (Demerol) IM. How should the nurse best administer this medication?

Question 8 A 56-year-old female patient has been admitted to the hospital with chronic muscle spasms and has been prescribed a new medication to treat the spasms. She has a poorly documented allergy to eggs, synthetic clothes, and perfumes. What is the priority action of the nurse to ensure that prescribed medication does not experience an allergic reaction?

Question 9 The nurse is caring for a patient receiving an aminoglycoside (antibiotic) that can be nephrotoxic. Which of the following will alert the nurse that the patient may be experiencing nephrotoxicity?

Question 10 A nurse is caring for a patient who has recently moved from Vermont to south Florida. The patient has been on the same antihypertensive drug for 6 years and has had stable blood pressures and no adverse effects. Since her move, however, she reports “dizzy spells and weakness” and feels that the drug is no longer effective. The nurse suspects that the change in the effectiveness of the drug is related to

Question 11 A patient with a recent diagnosis of acute renal failure has a long-standing seizure disorder which has been successfully controlled for several years with antiseizure medications. The nurse should recognize that the patient’s compromised renal function will likely

Question 12 A nurse is caring for a patient who has had part of her small intestine removed due to cancer. She has also now developed hypertension and has been prescribed a new medication to decrease her blood pressure. While planning the patient’s care, the nurse should consider a possible alteration in which of the following aspects of pharmacokinetics?

Question 13 A nurse who is responsible for administering medications should understand that the goals of the MedWatch program are to (Select all that apply.)

Question 14 The nurse’s assessment of a community-dwelling adult suggests that the client may have drug allergies that have not been previously documented. What statement by the client would confirm this?

Question 15 A patient with a variety of chronic health problems is being seen by her nurse practitioner, who is currently reviewing the patient’s medication regimen. Which of the patient’s medications should prompt the nurse to teach her to avoid drinking grapefruit juice?

Question 16 On the 1 a.m. rounds, the nurse finds a patient awake and frustrated that she cannot go to sleep. The nurse administers an ordered hypnotic to help the patient sleep. Two hours later, the nurse finds the patient out of bed, full of energy and cleaning her room. The nurse evaluates the patient’s response to the hypnotic as

Question 17 Which of the following statements best defines how a chemical becomes termed a drug?

Question 18 In light of her recent high blood pressure readings, a patient has been started on a thiazide diuretic and metoprolol (Lopressor), which is a beta-adrenergic blocker. What is the most likely rationale for using two medications to address the patient’s hypertension?

Question 19 In which of the following patients would a nurse expect to experience alterations in drug metabolism?

Question 20 30 ml = _______________tbsp

Question 21 Tylenol 325 mg/tablet, patient needs 650 mg; how many tables should patient take?

Question 22 A patient who has been admitted to the hospital for a mastectomy has stated that she has experienced adverse drug effects at various times during her life. Which of the following strategies should the nurse prioritize in order to minimize the potential of adverse drug effects during the patient’s stay in the hospital?

Question 23 A patient has been prescribed several drugs and fluids to be given intravenously. Before the nurse starts the intravenous administration, a priority assessment of the patient will be to note the

Question 24 A nurse is discussing with a patient the efficacy of a drug that his physician has suggested, and he begin taking. Efficacy of a drug means which of the following?

Question 25 A patient has been prescribed 1 mg lorazepam (Ativan) sublingual prior to the scheduled insertion of a peripherally inserted central (PIC) line. How should the nurse direct the patient when administering this medication?

Question 26 A 79-year-old woman with a medical history that includes osteoporosis has recently moved to a long-term care facility. Medication reconciliation indicates that the woman has been taking calcitonin, salmon for several years. The nurse should recognize that the most likely route for the administration of this drug is

Question 27 Mrs. Houston is a 78-year-old woman who resides in an assisted living facility. Her doctor prescribed digoxin at her last visit to the clinic and she has approached the nurse who makes regular visits to the assisted-living facility about this new drug. What teaching point should the nurse emphasize to Mrs. Houston?

Question 28 A nurse is caring for an 81-year-old patient in a long-term care facility who takes nine different medications each day. The patient has a recent diagnosis of seizure disorder and has begun treatment with phenytoin (Dilantin), a highly protein-bound drug. After 1 month of Dilantin therapy, the patient is still extremely drowsy and sluggish. The nurse determines that the prolonged adverse effect is likely due to

Question 29 A 72-year-old man who is unable to sleep since admission into the hospital is given a hypnotic medication at 9 p.m. The nurse finds the patient drowsy and confused at 10 a.m. the next day. The nurse is aware that this behavior is most likely due to

Question 30 An 80-year-old man has been prescribed oxycodone for severe, noncancer, chronic pain. He tells the nurse that he has difficulty swallowing and asks if he can crush the tablet before swallowing. The nurse will advise the patient that

Question 31 A 72-year-old man with pain issues is being given a drug by the intramuscular route. His serum blood level concentrations have been erratic. The nurse suspects that this may be due to

Question 32 An older adult who lives in a long-term care facility has recently begun taking losartan (Cozaar) for the treatment of hypertension. The nurse who provides care for this resident should recognize  that this change in the resident’s medication regimen make create a risk for

Question 33 A 77-year-old man with a long history of absence seizures has been treated with ethosuximide for many years. The man is now in the process of moving to a long-term care facility and a nurse is creating a plan of care. The nurse understands the potential adverse effects of this drug and would consequently prioritize which of the following nursing diagnoses?

Question 34 A 70-year-old woman with a history of a trial fibrillation has been admitted with a lower gastrointestinal bleed. During the nurse’s admission assessment, the nurse realizes that the patient has been taking ginkgo biloba supplements in addition to her prescribed warfarin, a combination that has resulted in bleeding. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse identify when planning this patient’s care?

Question 35 A 67-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. He reports to the nurse that he has chronic arthritis and circulation problems. Further assessment by the nurse reveals that the patient has a history of mild hypertension. He explains that he owns a business and lives alone. The nurse determines that he is within the normal weight range for his height and age but has a fondness for spicy foods and sweets. Which of the mentioned patient variables will have the greatest impact on the effectiveness  of the patient’s drug therapy?

Question 36 Mr. Lacuna is an 83-year-old resident of a long-term care facility who has a diagnosis of moderate Alzheimer disease. Mr. Lacuna’s physician recently prescribed oral rivastigmine, but he was unable to tolerate the drug due to its gastrointestinal effects. As a result, he has been ordered the transdermal patch form of the medication. When administering this form of rivastigmine, the nurse should

Question 37 Frequent episodes of exercise-related chest pain have caused a 79-year-old woman to use her prescribed nitroglycerin spray several times in recent weeks. This patient’s age will have what effect on her use of nitroglycerin?

Question 38 A nurse notes new drug orders for a patient who is already getting several medications. Which of the following is the most important consideration when preparing to administer the new drugs?

Question 39 A 79-year-old woman who takes several medications for a variety of chronic health problems has been prescribed an oral ant platelet aggregator that is to be taken once daily. The nurse has encouraged the woman to take the pill at the same time of day that she takes some of her other medications. What is the most likely rationale for the nurse’s advice?

Question 40 A home health nurse is performing a home visit to an elderly client who has early-stage dementia. The nurse observes that some of the client’s pill bottles are empty, even though the client is not due for refills for 2 weeks. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize when planning this client’s care?

importance of anticipating financial fluctuations

Throughout this course, you’ve examined the importance of anticipating financial fluctuations that may impact your organization’s ability to provide services. While financial managers have no time machines or crystal balls, they do have expense forecasts. Expense forecasting is one of the preeminent tools that financial managers can use to prepare their organizations for future fiscal turbulence. In this Assignment, you will examine a scenario and generate a corresponding expense forecast in Excel.

Before pursuing an opportunity or making a major purchase, financial decision makers must first ascertain if the expenditures are justified. Determining whether a new process, system, or purchase will yield worthwhile returns is no easy task. However, managers have a variety of tools to help them decide whether the new expenditure is warranted. Analyzing a venture’s benefit/cost ratio, marginal profit and loss statement, and break-even points enable nurse managers to make educated decisions about how they choose to commit their funds.

Note: For those Assignments in this course that require you to perform calculations you must:

  • Use the Excel spreadsheet template for the Week 3 assignment
  • Show all your calculations and formulas in the spreadsheet.
  • Answer any questions included with the problems (as text in the Excel spreadsheet).

A title and reference page are NOT needed in this assignment.  Put your name and assignment at the top of the Excel spreadsheet.

For those not comfortable with the use of Microsoft Excel, this week’s Optional Resources suggest several tutorials.

To prepare:

  • Review the information in the Week 9 and 10 Learning Resources dealing with expense forecasting, profit and loss, break-even analysis, and benefit and cost ratio analysis. Focus on how they are calculated and how they can be used in decision making.
  • View the following tutorial videos, provided in this week’s Learning Resources.
    • Week 10 Application Assignment Tutorial: Benefit Cost Ratio
    • Week 10 Application Assignment Tutorial: Breakeven Analysis
    • Week 10 Application Assignment Tutorial: Expense Forecasting
    • Week 10 Application Assignment Tutorial: Profit and Loss Scenario

Use the Week 10 Application Assignment Template, provided in this week’s Learning Resources, to complete this assignment.   Carefully examine the information in each of the scenarios and provide the necessary calculations. Using this information will help you answer the questions. Note: All the scenarios will be submitted as one document. Each scenario will be on a different tab in the spreadsheet.

Expense Forecasting

In this Application Assignment you calculate scenarios focusing on benefit/cost ratio analysis, marginal profit and loss statements, and break-even analysis. For these scenarios, you will utilize the provided figures to perform calculations and then make recommendations about the viability of the investment opportunities

Expense Forecasting Scenario

Your department has performed 20,000 procedures during the first six months (January–June) of 20X1. Spending during that period of time was $210,000 for fixed expense items and $1,200,000 for variable expense items. Of those amounts, $50,000 of fixed expense money was spent on preparing for a Joint Commission survey. Volume is anticipated to be 10% higher in the second half of the year. On November 1st, two new procedure technicians will begin work. The salary and fringe benefit costs for each are $96,000/year. Based on the information provided, prepare an expense forecast for 20X1.

Annualization for Fixed:  (Adjusted Total for Year to Date Expense/6) * 12 =Total Annualized Amounts
 
Annualization for Variable (Adjusted Total for Year to Date Expense/ 20,000) * 40,000 =Total Annualized Amounts.

Financial Analysis Cycle

Marginal Profit and Loss Statement Scenario

You are examining a proposal for a new business opportunity – a new procedure for which demand is expected to be 1,400 units the first year, growing by 600 units a year thereafter. The price charged per procedure is $1,000. The collection rate is anticipated to be 80%. Each procedure consumes $300 of supplies. Salary cost is estimated to cost $540,000 each year, fringe benefits are 25% of salaries, rent for the facility is $55,000/yr and operating cost are $120,000/yr.

Questions:

  1. Develop a marginal profit and loss statement for this business opportunity.Based on that analysis, should this opportunity be pursued?

Break-Even Analysis Scenario

You can charge $1,075 for a new service. Demand is anticipated to be 8,000 units a year. Your business is able to handle up to 16,500 units annually, so capacity should not be a problem. The average collection rate is 80%. The new service has annual fixed costs of $4,700,000. Variable cost per unit of service is $420.

Question: Use break-even analysis to determine if this new service is financially viable. If the business is not financially viable, what steps could you take to make a case to proceed with implementation?  Explain your decision.

Benefit/Cost Ratio Analysis Scenario

You are considering the acquisition of a new piece of equipment with a useful life of five years. This new technology will make your clinical operation more efficient and allow for a reduction of 10 FTEs. The equipment purchase price is $4,500,000 plus 10% installation fee. The purchase price includes service for the first year, an item that has an annual cost of $10,000. There is a potential for additional volume of 150,000 units in the first year, growing by 30,000 each year thereafter. The price charged per unit is $15.00 with a 50% collection rate. The staff being eliminated are paid $12.50 per hour. The fringe benefits rate is 20%. The hurdle rate is 7.5%.

Questions: After reviewing Dr. Ward’s Video and the calculations below, please answer the following questions:

  • What is meant by  benefit/cost ratio, average payback period and ROI  and why are the all  important to understand when purchasing new equipment?
  • Based on this information, would you pursue this opportunity?
  • Explain your decision  in 250-500 words in the text box below.

Caring Concept Assignment

Based on selected form of artistic expression, this assignment may require you to submit two different files, one for the artistic expression and a paper. Please submit both files at the same time.

 

Requirements

 

Criteria for Content

 

Take a moment to reflect on how you demonstrate caring in your current professional practice.

 

  1. Create an artistic representation of your perception on caring in nursing. The artistic expression can be a drawing, sculpture, collage, poem, short story, or dance.
    1. Videos are to be 1 to 3 minutes in length.
    2. Poems and short stories should not exceed one-page, double-spaced wording.
    3. Drawings, pictures, or collages should be formatted on an 8 x 10 document.
    4. Sculptures submitted as a jpg.
  2. In a one- to two-page written paper, address the following.
    1. The importance of caring to nursing practice and the profession
    2. A personal definition of caring; include principles of holistic care
    3. Definitions of caring found in nursing literature that support your perspective on caring
    4. An explanation of the artistic expression you chose and how it represents caring
    5. Summary of key concept presented in the paper