Question 1 of 20 (worth 1 point) 1. Which of the following is correct:Homo Sapiens B.Homo sapiens C.Homos sapien D.

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Question 1 of 20 (worth 1 point)1. Which of the following is correct:A.Homo SapiensB.Homo sapiensC.Homos sapienD.homo sapiensQuestion 2 of 20 (worth 1 point)A clade is a group of organism that sharesA.food sourcesB.matesC.a common ancestorD.similar ecological nichesQuestion 3 of 20 (worth 1 point)3. A human hand is relatively __ compared to a bat wing or a dolphin flipper.A.punctuatedB.analogousC.specializedD.generalizedQuestion 4 of 20 (worth 1 point)A major difference between a paleospecies and biological species is that a paleospeciesA.adds a temporal componentB.is not yet extinctC.is more variableD.is staticQuestion 5 of 20 (worth 1 point)Bats have wings that allow them to fly. So do birds and insects. Similarities such as wings in different animals that have a common functionA.are termed analogiesB.are called homologiesC.must mean they have a recent common ancestryD.are always primate traitsQuestion 6 of 20 (worth 1 point)Closely related species are grouped together in which of the following?A.paleospeciesB.familyC.subspeciesD.genusQuestion 7 of 20 (worth 1 point)Humans and apes have certain characteristics in common such as a broad sternum, a Y-5 cusp pattern on the molars, and the lack of a tail. Since these features are not found in monkeys and prosimians, what are these characteristics?A.shared derived traits between humans and apesB.analogiesC.primitive traits of generalized mammalsD.generalized traits found only in human and apesQuestion 8 of 20 (worth 1 point)Humans areA.animalsB.vertebratesC.chordatesD.all of theseQuestion 9 of 20 (worth 1 point)In the early Mesozoic, Pangea broke into two large continents, Gondwanaland and Laurasia. Laurasia consisted of which of the present day continents?A.North America, Europe, and AsiaB.South America and AfricaC.South America, Africa, Australia, India, and AntarcticaD.Asia, Australia, and AntarcticaQuestion 10 of 20 (worth 1 point)Plate tectonics causes continental drift.True False Question 11 of 20 (worth 1 point)Taphonomists studyA.the classification of fossil speciesB.plate tectonicsC.undersea lifeD.how bone assemblages come to be buriedQuestion 12 of 20 (worth 1 point)There are two bird species on a Midwestern prairie that look very much alike physically and are probably descended from a common ancestor. During courtship, however, the males of one species stands on one leg while looking at the female. The males of the second species uses both feet to drum on the prairie floor. The females will only mate with those males who behave appropriately during courtship. What is this an example of?A.behavioral isolationB.parallel evolutionC.geographic isolationD.convergent evolutionQuestion 13 of 20 (worth 1 point)What defines a group of interbreeding individuals that are reproductively isolated from other such groups?A.phylogenetic speciesB.ecological speciesC.biological speciesD.homologous speciesQuestion 14 of 20 (worth 1 point)Speciation isA.what drives microevolutionB.not a common process identified in evolutionC.what eliminates variation from a populationD.a macroevolutionary processQuestion 15 of 20 (worth 1 point)Which of the following is an extremely important form of isolation that leads to speciation?A.geographic isolationB.pubertal isolationC.mate isolationD.all of theseQuestion 16 of 20 (worth 1 point)From the fossil record you have two adult primate skulls that have very similar morphological characteristics but one of the skulls is larger and has characteristics that are more pronounced than on the other skull. It is likely that these two skulls representA.different species because they are different in sizeB.likely different breeds of dogs because they show extreme variationC.different paleospecies because they are not identicalD.the same paleospecies and are exhibiting sexual dimorphismQuestion 17 of 20 (worth 1 point)The amount of morphological variation identified in extinct species should beA.no more than seen in sexually dimorphic speciesB.greater than found in extant species of the same typeC.equivalent to the amount of variation present in living speciesD.less than that found in similar modern speciesQuestion 18 of 20 (worth 1 point)The Cenozoic Era is known as the “Age of __”.A.HumansB.MammalsC.DinosaursD.ReptilesQuestion 19 of 20 (worth 1 point)The extinction event 65 million years ago is an example ofA.a mass extinctionB.one species being out competed by another speciesC.when a new predator is introduced into an environmentD.the dangers of continental driftQuestion 20 of 20 (worth 1 point)There is/are __ type(s) of extinction(s), __.A.one / like when a meteor hit earth killing all the dinosaursB.one / caused by the inability to adapt to the environmentC.three / all of which are caused by the environmentD.two / Darwinian and Mass

Is Personal space is considered a varying degree for another individual to enter In cultural awareness

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Is Personal space is considered a varying degree for another individual to enter In cultural awareness

Personality disorders are often not apparent to others, and many people with these problems seem to live basically normal lives without being a…

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Personality disorders are often not apparent to others, and many people with these problems seem to live basically normal lives without being a threat to others. If these people can function well in society, why should they be considered psychologically disordered?

The vertical dimension of Plutchik’s model of basic human emotions represents the ________ of emotion. source b. intensity c. nature d. complexity…

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1. The vertical dimension of Plutchik’s model of basic human emotions represents the ________ of emotion.

        a. source

        b. intensity

        c. nature

        d. complexity

2. After the race, Sally felt very thirsty. Drinking when she is thirsty BEST supports the ________ theory of motivation”

Instinct

Need

Homeostasis

Drive Reduction

3. If Alice’s strange adventures in Wonderland were actually the dreams of a young girl, she is in stage _____ sleep.

1/2/3/4/REM

4. If a professor accused you of cheating on a test, your adrenal glands would probably release

Beta endorphins

Testosterone

Insulin

Glucose

Choose one of the Personality disorders from the slides that you

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Personality disorders Anxiety disordersObsessive-compulsive disorderPosttraumatic stress disorder Major depressive disorderBipolar disorder Schizophrenia- Personality disorders What is a personality disorder? Someone with a personality disorder has chronic,enduring patterns of behavior leading tosignificant impairment in social functioning.There is a tendency to act inflexibly — the person can’t change in response to life demands.Ten are listed in the DSM-5.

https://www.newyorker.com/magazine/2015/06/01/journey-to-jihad Why do you suppose Muslims in Europe seem to become radicalized more than Muslims in

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https://www.newyorker.com/magazine/2015/06/01/journey-to-jihad

  1. Why do you suppose Muslims in Europe seem to become radicalized more than Muslims in the U.S.? The New Yorker article above will aid you answering this question.

The highs of the good times experienced under Joshua’s faithfulness are quickly undone by lows of the bad times experienced during the tenure of the…

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The highs of the good times experienced under Joshua’s faithfulness are quickly undone by lows of the bad times experienced during the tenure of the Judges and people’s covenant infidelity. How does the tag line of Judges – “there was no king in Israel and everyone did what was right in his own eyes” relate the larger Biblical storyline?

Presumptive Waiver: A type of judicial waiver in which the __________ bears the burden of proof and must justify to the judge why the juvenile…

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Q1. Presumptive Waiver: A type of judicial waiver in which the __________ bears the burden of proof and must justify to the judge why the juvenile should not be waived.

   a. parent

   b. judge

   c. prosecutor

   d. defense

Q2. The first juvenile execution occurred in Plymouth Colony, Massachusetts, in 1642. The juvenile executed was __________.

   a. Thomas Kent

   b. Thomas Graunger

   c. Thomas Sawyer, who was later used as a character by Mark Twain

   d. Thomas Mayberry

Q3. Prior to Roper v. Simmons, a juvenile who was at least age 16 at the time of the offense could receive the death penalty.

   a. True

   b. False

Q4. The use of waiver to adult court is a relatively ______ event.

   a. rare

   b. common

   c. frequent

   d. routine

Q5. A type of waiver to adult court in which a juvenile is automatically sent to adult court because of the type of offenses that was committed is called a ____________________.

   a. judicial waiver

   b. legislature waiver

   c. prosecutorial waiver

   d. discretionary judicial waiver

Q6. A type of waiver that involves the prosecutor filling a petition with a juvenile court requesting that the juvenile court waive the juvenile to adult court is called a ____________.

   a. judicial waiver

   b. legislature waiver

   c. prosecutorial waiver

   d. discretionary judicial waiver

Q7. Prior to Roper v. Simmons, the United States was only one of eight countries in the world that allowed the execution of juvenile offenders.

   a. True

   b. False

Q8. In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court rule that the execution of offenders who were under the age of18 when their crimes were committed could not be executed?

   a. Stanford v. Kentucky

   b. Atkins v. Virginia

   c. Savage v. McAninch

   d. Roper v. Simmons

Q9. Each state sets what is known as a ___________________ which specifies the age when a juvenile court no longer has jurisdiction over a juvenile offender.

   a. jurisdictional age limit

   b. jurisdictional mentality limit

   c. jurisdictional defense limit

   d. jurisdictional requirement limit

Q10. In the case of Atkins v. Virginia the Supreme Court ruled that it was unconstitutional to execute a mentally retarded person.

   a. True

   b. False

Q11. The most common method of waiver to adult court and the one with the longest history is ______________.

   a. judicial waiver

   b. legislature waiver

   c. prosecutorial waiver

   d. discretionary judicial waiver

Q12. In the case of Stanford v. Kentucky the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that the execution of a juvenile is unconstitutional.

   a. True

   b. False

Q13. Under mandatory judicial waiver, a juvenile court judge, at the waiver hearing, looks for only _______________ that a juvenile offender committed a serious offense.

   a. probable cause

   b. reasonable cause

   c. reasonable suspicion

   d. probable suspicion

Q14. Officers who tend to approach juvenile matters “by the book” are probably from a ___________ style department.

   a. professional

   b. legalistic

   c. watchman

   d. service

Q15. A philosophical movement in policing that attempts to solve the underlying problems of crime and delinquency instead of just responding to calls is called ______________.

   a. professional policing

   b. the crime fighting model

   c. problem-oriented policing

   d. tactical policing

   e. the due process model

Q16. A philosophical movement in policing designed to make the community a co-active partner with law enforcement was called ________________.

   a. the traditional or political period

   b. the professional period

   c. the community oriented period

   d. the profiling period

Q17. The era in law enforcement marked by political corruption and political control of policing was called ________________.

   a. the traditional or political period

   b. the professional period

   c. the community oriented period

   d. the profiling period

Q18. In the _____________style of policing, the officer uses criminal law, threats, temporary custody and problem solving to keep the peace.

   a. professional

   b. legalistic

   c. watchman

   d. service

Q19. The index offenses include:

   a. drug sales and drug possession

   b. murder, rape, robbery and auto theft

   c. shoplifting and forgery

   d. simple assault and disorderly conduct

   e. DUI and public intoxication

Q20. More juveniles are arrested for murder than are adults arrested for murder.

   a. True

   b. False

Q21. Juveniles who live in urban areas tend to have a more ________ view of the police than those in suburban or rural areas.

   a. positive

   b. negative

   c. neutral

   d. pro

   e. ally

Q22. Police officers, like most people in society, are very _______ of people who knowingly victimize children.

   a. professional

   b. tolerant

   c. intolerant

   d. supportive

   e. understanding

Q23. Municipal ordinances that restrict the hours a juvenile can be out in public have been found to be unconstitutional in all cases.

   a. True

   b. False

Q24. The era in law enforcement where the goal was to increase the professionalization of policing, thus removing it from political pressures, was called _______________.

   a. the traditional or political period

   b. the professional period

   c. the community oriented period

   d. the profiling period

Q25. Taking a minor into police custody to protect him or her from possible harm is called ___________ custody.

   a. protective

   b. dangerous

   c. loving

   d. harsh

   e. hardship

Q26. The term “parens patriae” means ____________________.

   a. the true parent

   b. the papa

   c. the parent’s failure

   d. the state as parent

   e. the parent’s right

Q27. Who usually decides what charges to bring against the juvenile?

   a. the arresting officer

   b. the prosecutor

   c. the judge

   d. the defense attorney

   e. the guardian for the child

Q28. In juvenile justice, diversion is sometimes referred to as ___________.

   a. division

   b. information assessment

   c. internal adjusted

   d. informal adjustment

   e. diverted mindsets

Q29. The most typical disposition of a delinquency case is residential placement.

   a. True

   b. False

Q30. Who is most likely to prepare the predisposition report?

   a. the arresting officer

   b. the prosecuting attorney

   c. the judge

   d. the defense attorney

   e. the probation officer

Q31. The prosecutor represents the interest of the ______ in bringing the case against a juvenile.

   a. himself or herself

   b. state

   c. the victim only

   d. the defendant

   e. the planet earth

Q32. After a case has been referred to juvenile court, it is sent to _______.

   a. upkeep

   b. take

   c. intake

   d. intook

   e. outtake

Q33. A __________ has the primary responsibility for the operation of the juvenile court and is an important decision maker in the juvenile court.

   a. Juvenile court judge

   b. Probation officer

   c. defense attorney

   d. prosecuting attorney

   e. guardian for the child

Q34. Delinquency is any behavior that is prohibited by the juvenile law of the state.

   a. True

   b. False

Q35. A ___________ center is a facility designed for short-term, secure confinement of a juvenile prior to court disposition or execution of a court order.

   a. detox

   b. detention

   c. detainment

   d. remand

   e. complex

Q36. A status offense is an act committed by a juvenile that would not be considered a crime if committed by an adult.

   a. True

   b. False

Q37. The report that contains background information on the juvenile, a description of the circumstances surrounding the juvenile’s delinquent acts, as well as a disposition recommendation from the probation officer is called _____________.

   a. the predisposition report

   b. the final report

   c. the determination report

   d. the parole report

   e. the incarceration report

Q38. A document that states the allegations against a juvenile and requests the juvenile court to adjudicate the juvenile is called a _______________.

   a. charge

   b. arrest order

   c. petition

   d. delinquency statement

   e. delinquency charge

Q39. Research has shown that immediately ________ school is a prime time for delinquents to commit crime.

   a. after

   b. during

   c. before

   d. going to

   e. about to leave

Q40. In certain states, the parent can be held liable for the truancy of their child.

   a. True

   b. False

Q41. A quick fix, or a cure all, is sometimes called a _________.

   a. fix-it

   b. curer

   c. problem solver

   d. panacea

   e. trouble

Q42. Most juvenile delinquents are chronic offenders who have multiple contacts with the juvenile justice system and criminal justice system.

   a. True

   b. False

Q43. The two most prominent sources of interaction with juveniles are ___________________.

   a. his peer group and the television

   b. computer games and his peer group

   c. in the home and at school

   d. the church and the peer group

Q44. Many experts are now advocating a more ____________ approach to delinquency prevention that involved more than just treating the juveniles themselves.

   a. hollister

   b. whole

   c. hole

   d. holistic

   e. serious

Q45. Most diverted juveniles are________ offenders.

   a. repeat

   b. first-time

   c. chronic

   d. last-time

   e. serious

Q46. When first time offenders are diverted away from formal processing and into a number of service programs it is called ____________.

   a. classification

   b. diversion

   c. deinstitutionalization

   d. early pre-delinquent intervention and prevention

   e. divergent

Q47. In teen court, youths are often sentenced to write apology letters to their victims.

   a. True

   b. False

Q48. The overall proportion of kids who become seriously delinquent increases in direct proportion to the age at which the child first commits a delinquent act.

   a. True

   b. False

Q49. Research shows that most boot camp programs are ___________ successful than traditional correctional sanctions.

   a. more

   b. no more

   c. the exact same

   d. much more

Q50. _______ pre-delinquent intervention and prevention focus on attempts that are made to target pregnant mothers and children in the very early stages of life.

   a. late

   b. early

   c. ongoing

   d. prenatal

   e. aftercare

 Guided Response: Review at least two of your classmates’ posts and offer a reflection on their definition and description using one of the foundational theories or historical essays related to the

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 Guided Response: Review at least two of your classmates’ posts and offer a reflection on their definition and description using one of the foundational theories or historical essays related to the student development movement.  How does your definition compare and contrast with theirs? ( will add my work so you compare and contrast with theirs. Let me know when you ready for it.)

Camille Nunez

I would define student development as a measurement of how individuals in higher education have been able to adapt to their surroundings using their life experiences, learned information from faculty and peers to successfully navigate more complex situations and be prepared for life after “college”. 

Previously student development was seen as a way to get a student from A to B. This was a path constructed to prepare students into specific occupations.  When Frank Parson began to take into consideration student characteristics and personality traits to better pair them with the “right” job, higher education began to take a more personal roll in student lives (Evans, 2010).  However, it went only as far as preparing students to be successful by training them into specific jobs. 

After WWII, many believed that education should be considerate of other cultures and to encourage students to be a contributing member of society (The American Council on Education, 1937)  This paved the way for educators to move from just looking at a students characteristics but their point of view, their background, culture, interests and goals.

Through the years, student development began to also measure students by their maturity and how the institutions of higher education contribute to their ongoing autonomy and independence. I always believed that once in college, I would gain more independence and learn more about the world around me.  What I didn’t expect was that higher education would help me mature and change my world view. I agree with Heath, Feldman and Newcomb’s findings that peers in higher education provide support where perhaps faculty leave off. Heath had said that as students mature they become allocentric (Evans, 2010).  I understand why so many college students feel the need to be part of changing the world and become advocates for many social and political movements.  When I attended campus in my late teen and early 20’s, the university was filled with students trying to make an impact on the world. This demonstrated a movement away from ego-centrism as well as integration in society.

References:

Evans, N. J., Forney, D. S., Guido, F. M., Patton, L. D., & Renn, K. A. (2010). Student development in college: Theory, research, and practice(2nd ed.)

Philip Peevy

In modern times, the concept of student development refers to the means whereby a pupil “grows, develops, or increases his or her development…in an institution of higher education” (Evans, Forney, Guido, Patton, and Renn, 2010). In this case, postsecondary institutions attempt to address students’ multiple needs and individual differences (p. 10). Today’s college environments place an emphasis on student’s cognitive, academic, and personal growth; the idea here is to create students who are not only self-aware and interdependent, but who also become ethical and socially responsible beings.

My definition of student development probably aligns best with Keagan’s 1982 theory regarding student self- awareness and how individuals make sense of the world. In my view, student development occurs when (1) college individuals fully understand and appreciate themselves and others and (2) can use what they learn in a relevant and personally meaningful way.

I was in high school when Keagan’s theory came out; there was no emphasis on “student differences” or “making sense of the world” back then. Actually, it wasn’t until I returned to college in the 1990s that anyone cared about whether I could make sense of anything in life. Now, as an English teacher, I try to get my college students to reflect their own roles in society, to connect what they learn in school to their own lives, and to use their experiences to improve themselves every day. To me, these are the things that matter.

References

Evans, N. J., Forney, D. S., Guido, F. M., Patton, L. D., & Renn, K. A. (2010). Student development in college: Theory, research, and practice (2nd ed.). Retrieved from https://vitalsource.com

Assignment 1.1: Conflicting Viewpoints Essay – Part IPrewriting Due Week 2 and worth 30 pointsWhen looking for information about a particular issue, how often do you try to resist biases toward your o

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Assignment 1.1: Conflicting Viewpoints Essay – Part IPrewriting Due Week 2 and worth 30 points

When looking for information about a particular issue, how often do you try to resist biases toward your own point of view? This assignment asks you to engage in this aspect of critical thinking by playing the “Believing Game.” The Believing Game is about making the effort to “believe” – or at least consider – the reasons for an opposing view on an issue.

The assignment is divided into two (2) parts. In Part I of the assignment (due Week 2), you will first read a book excerpt about critical thinking processes: “The Believing Game and How to Make Conflicting Opinions More Fruitful” at http://www.procon.org/sourcefiles/believinggame.pdf. Next, you will review the Procon.org Website in order to gather information. Then, you will engage in prewriting to examine your thoughts.Note: In Part II of the assignment (due Week 4), you will write an essay geared towards synthesizing your ideas.

Part I – Prewriting: Follow the instructions below for this prewriting activity. Use complete sentences and adhere to standard rules of English grammar, punctuation, mechanics, and spelling. 1. Select one (1) of the approved topics from the www.procon.org Website and state your position on the issue. 2. From the Procon.org Website, identify three (3) premises (reasons) listed under either the Pro or Con section – whichever section opposes your position. 3.For each of the three (3) premises (reasons) that oppose your position on the issue, answer these “believing” questions suggested by Elbow:

  1. What’s interesting or helpful about this view?
  2. What would I notice if I believed this view?
  3. In what sense or under what conditions might this idea be true?”

The paper should follow guidelines for clear and organized writing:

  • Include an introductory paragraph and concluding paragraph.
  • Address main ideas in body paragraphs with a topic sentence and supporting sentences.
  • Adhere to standard rules of English grammar, punctuation, mechanics, and spelling.